/lit/ - Literature

>>18817068
None, because Christianity is a monotheistic religion without tribal patron deities.
Why highlight the Semitic background of Christianity while ignoring its Hellenic background? That Jesus held Greek philosophical influences is obvious and well established, and Christian doctrine would be expounded upon by European theologians reading Greek philosophy, but Jews who were contemporaneous to Christ were also religiously Hellenized.
The identification of God and Christ with the Logos in the Gospel of John indicates a Hellenized conception of God. Divine filiation itself was a Hellenic concept; the Greco-Roman religious believed that gods sire men, but traditionally practitioners of Judaism did not. Only those Jews who had adopted some of the beliefs of their Mediterranean rulers saw plausibility in the notion of God incarnate.
Even the Pharisees as a Jewish conservative religious faction manifested the influence of Hellenic ideas. Where as Jews once believed that Sheol was the destination of all dead, they came to identify Sheol with Hades and adopted the belief that it was the destination of the wicked dead while the virtuous dead were destined for Heaven.
In opposition to the Judaizers, the Apostolic Council determined that Mosaic law was not binding to gentile (Greek and Roman at the time) converts, only some moral principles about not eating tainted meat and fucking each other in the ass. This occurs in the New Testament. I fail to see how Christianity is even close to being primarily Semitic. It honestly seems kind of retarded to suggest.